Re: [ARSCLIST] Sampling Theory (was Fred Layn's post on the Studer list re: Quantegy)

["Steven C. Barr" <stevenc@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>]

----- Original Message -----
From: "Mike Richter" <mrichter@xxxxxxx>
> If we find that they cannot be made to sound the same, then the question
of
> which is more accurate becomes relevant. For that, 'golden ears' or
> objective measurement will be needed. But why not try taking an easy first
> step first? It may turn out that we don't need a second.
This reminded me of another variable that hasn't been addressed yet (AFAIK).
In my case, I have suffered substantial hearing loss due to age, a part-time
musical career and a couple of head injuries. Further, my hearing loss is
not
"flat" in the sense of frequency...my resposnse curve has beem established
by
testing, and I have a notable "valley" centered around the mid-range
frequencies that are used to differentiate human speech.

This suggests that we might need to establish the "bandwidth" and frequency
response curves of the hearing of our test subjects; there is a chance that
their hearing and any difference from standard my colour their opinions!
Steven C. Barr